A Converse of the Mean Value Theorem: The American Mathematical Monthly: Vol 104, No 10
Does the converse of Rolle's Theorem hold true? Let [math]f[/math] be continuous on [math][a,b][/math] and differentiable on [math](a,b)[/math]. If there exists [math]c[/math] in [math](a,b)[/math] such that [math]f'(c)=0[/math], does it follow that ...
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Does the converse of Rolle's Theorem hold true? Let [math]f[/math] be continuous on [math][a,b][/math] and differentiable on [math](a,b)[/math]. If there exists [math]c[/math] in [math](a,b)[/math] such that [math]f'(c)=0[/math], does it follow that ...
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